Saturday, February 6, 2010

Practice Quiz Answer Sheet Link

Click the link below to access the answer key for the practice quizzes.
You will also find skills videos, more practice quizzes, and other EMT student resources at this website:



If you have any questions or need clarification on any of the answers, please contact your instructor.

Patient Assessment Quiz #2

Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. A detailed physical exam should be performed
A. before vital signs are taken.
B. before the SAMPLE history.
C. only after all life-threatening injuries and conditions have been managed.
D. only after approval from medical direction has been received.

__________ 2. The reassessment is most often conducted
A. at the scene of the incident.
B. in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital.
C. prior to packaging the patient for transport.
D. just after packaging the patient for transport.

__________ 3. Which of the following would usually not require a rapid secondary exam?
A. an unresponsive patient
B. a patient with multiple injuries
C. a patient with a lacerated foot
D. a patient with a significant mechanism of injury

__________ 4. When checking for pupillary response during the secondary exam, note if both eyes
respond equally and simultaneously when a light is shined in one, a response known as
A. consensual reflex. C. dysconjugate gaze.
B. doll’s eyes. D. icterus.

__________ 5. A serious finding during the secondary exam is a pulsating mass in the abdomen, which may indicate
A. a weakened abdominal aorta. C. failure of one or both kidneys.
B. progressive appendicitis. D. liver damage.

__________ 6. For a noncritical patient, the ongoing assessment should be performed every _____
minutes.
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20

__________ 7. The first step in the reassessment is to
A. check interventions. C. repeat the primary assessment.
B. reassess and record vital signs. D. repeat the focused assessment.

__________ 8. The chief purposes of the reassessment are to detect any changes in the patient’s
condition, to identify any missed injuries or conditions, and to
A. alert the receiving facility of probable arrival time.
B. adjust emergency care as needed.
C. fill in any gaps in the SAMPLE history.
D. complete packaging of the patient.

__________ 9. If during the reassessment a patient begins to complain of a symptom not initially
identified, the EMT should
A. inform medical direction and transport immediately.
B. complete a focused assessment for the area of complaint.
C. check interventions.
D. obtain a new set of vital signs.

__________10. During the reassessment, the routine in providing emergency care should be
A. assess, observe, report. C. assess, intervene, reassess.B. intervene, assess, report. D. report, intervene, reassess

Thursday, May 1, 2008

Weapons of Mass Distruction Quiz

Chapter 45 Quiz
Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.


__________ 1. A simple way to remember the types of WMD is to
A. memorize the many types. C. carry the CDC guide with you.
B. use a mnemonic such as CBRNE. D. call medical direction.


__________ 2. Responding to a WMD incident requires
A. special response strategies.
B. special protective equipment.
C. the same strategy and tactics used on other calls.
D. permission from law enforcement officials.


__________ 3. An example of a secondary injury from a WMD event would be
A. being hit by flying debris.
B. the blast from a bomb.
C. hitting an object after being blown into the air.
D. the psychological effect of the event.


__________ 4. When responding to a WMD event which is most important?
A. removing the patient first
B. putting on protective equipment
C. calling dispatch
D. identifying the type and cause of the event


__________ 5. Which is the most acceptable method of protecting yourself from respiratory exposure?
A. Stay away from the exposure. C. Use a HEPA or N-95 mask.
B. Put a mask on all patients. D. Use SCBA.


__________ 6. Which is not one of the three initial roles of an EMT at a WMD incident?
A. Establish and EMS Incident Command.
B. Assume a triage leader position.
C. Take a unit position.
D. Become the staging officer.


__________ 7. Nerve agents work by
A. disrupting an enzyme at the nerve endings.
B. killing the nerve cells.
C. causing skin destruction.
D. confusing the patient.


__________ 8. A vesicant is an agent that affects the
A. nerves. C. skin, lungs, and eyes.
B. gastrointestinal system. D. brain.


__________ 9. Cyanide causes deadly effects by
A. paralyzing the victim. C. removing Acth.
B. hyperthermia. D. disrupting cellular oxygen use.


__________ 10. A radiation-enhanced weapon is one that
A. contains only gamma radiation. C. is known as a “dirty bomb.”
B. uses biological material. D. poses no threat to the responder.

MCI and Incident Management Quiz

Chapter 44 Quiz
Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.


__________ 1. Any event that places excessive demands on emergency response personnel and equipment is called a
A. catastrophe. C. multiple-casualty incident.
B. disaster. D. tragedy.


__________ 2. The senior EMT who arrives at the scene of an MCI or disaster assumes responsibility as the _____ commander.
A. unified C. incident mobile
B. sole D. EMS incident


__________ 3. The unit responsible for distributing the medical materials and equipment necessary to render care is called the _____ unit.
A. staging C. supply
B. extrication D. triage


__________ 4. A system used for sorting patients to determine the order in which they will receive medical care or transportation to definitive care is called
A. staging. C. triage.
B. assessment. D. treatment.


__________ 5. In the four-priority triage system, patients who are dead receive what priority level?
A. Priority 3 C. Priority 1
B. Priority 4 D. Priority 2


__________ 6. The unit responsible for the monitoring, overseeing of inventories, and direction of available ambulances to the treatment unit is called the _____ unit.
A. incident command C. staging
B. transportation D. communication


__________ 7. As an EMT at an MCI, do not let communication difficulties distract you from
A. patient care.
B. contacting the incident commander.
C. using radio codes.
D. direct communication with the receiving hospital.


__________ 8. A sudden catastrophic event that overwhelms natural order and causes great loss of property and/or life is called a
A. disaster. C. calamity.
B. Force 10 event MCI. D. tragedy.


__________ 9. Critical to any successful rescue effort is an efficient communications system that includes
A. multiple frequencies. C. E9-1-1 capabilities.
B. EMT dispatchers. D. a back-up system.


__________ 10. A typical color-coding system for triage tags assigns high-priority patients the color:
A. yellow. C. red.
B. green. D. black.


__________ 11. A key to dealing with non-life-threatening injuries in the treatment unit is
A. detailed tagging.
B. taking treatment shortcuts.
C. frequent consultation with medical direction.
D. performing detailed assessments.


__________ 12. After an incident commander is determined, he or she should begin to establish all of the following EMS units except
A. triage. C. finance.
B. transportation. D. supply.


__________ 13. EMTs arriving at an MCI should first report to the _____ unit.
A. mobile command C. staging
B. supply D. transportation


__________ 14. Patients should be moved from the triage unit to the treatment unit in order of their
A. age. C. seniority.
B. priority. D. complaints.


__________ 15. During an MCI, radio communications from the scene of the incident to the receiving hospitals should be handled by the
A. Incident Commander. C. transportation officer.
B. individual EMTs. D. EMD.

HAZMAT Quiz

Chapter 43 Quiz
Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.


__________ 1. According to the Department of Transportation, a hazardous material is a substance that
A. can explode.
B. can cause death.
C. poses a threat or unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property if not properly controlled.
D. does not meet OSHA guidelines for workplace and product safety.


__________ 2. According to OSHA, EMS responders likely to witness or discover a hazardous materials emergency should have what minimum level of training?
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. Hazardous Materials Technician
B. First Responder Operations D. First Responder Awareness


__________ 3. The level of training required of rescuers who actually plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material is
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist. C. Hazardous Materials Technician.
B. First Responder Operations. D. First Responder Awareness.


__________ 4. Normal triage, stabilization, and treatment are performed in the _____ zone.
A. warm C. cold
B. control D. hot


__________ 5. Initial (gross) patient decontamination should be carried out in the _____ zone.
A. warm C. cold
B. hot D. triage


__________ 6. The first and primary concern of the EMT at a hazardous materials incident is for
A. his or her own personal safety. C. the safety of the public.
B. the safety of the hazmat team. D. the patient’s medical needs.


__________ 7. The blue color of the NFPA 704 system indicates a _____ hazard.
A. chemical C. heath
B. fire D. reactivity


__________ 8. The U.S. Department of Transportation requires that vehicles carrying hazardous materials display
A. specific hazard labels or placards. C. red and yellow flashers.
B. red warning flags. D. a CHEMTREC number.


__________ 9. A public service division of the Chemical Manufacturer’s Association that can answer any questions and advise you on how to handle any emergency involving hazardous materials is called:
A. CHEMTREC. C. OSHA.
B. CHEMSAT. D. MSDS.


__________ 10. A U.S. DOT publication that lists more than a thousand hazardous materials, each with an identification number cross-referenced to complete emergency instructions, is
A. OSHA Emergency Response Standards.
B. NFPA Standard #473.
C. Material Safety Data Sheets.
D. Emergency Response Guidebook.


__________ 11. The first course of action that should be taken by the EMT at a hazardous materials incident is
A. securing the scene. C. beginning rescue of victims.
B. limiting exposure of rescuers. D. contacting an ALS team.


__________ 12. The most essential part of hazardous materials rescue operations is
A. the training of EMTs. C. effective preincident planning.
B. use of SCBA. D. use of specialized hazmat suits


__________ 13. Receiving facilities handling patients from hazardous materials incidents should be
A. the closest to the scene. C. OSHA approved.
B. designated in the incident plan. D. specialized chemical centers.


__________ 14. Life-saving emergency care, such as airway management and immobilization, should be performed in the _____ zone.
A. hot C. warm
B. containment D. cold


__________ 15. Radiation contamination occurs when the patient comes into direct contact with radioactive
A. gases. C. liquids.
B. particles. D. all of these.

Gaining Access Patient Extrication Quiz

Chapter 42 Quiz
Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.


__________ 1. The majority of electric current and associated hazards in vehicle collisions can be eliminated most easily by
A. grounding the vehicles.
B. disconnecting the battery.
C. flooding the engine compartment with CO2.
D. turning off the engine.


__________ 2. Upon arrival at the scene of a collision, the EMT’s first task is to
A. stabilize the vehicle.
B. gain access to the patient.
C. perform a scene size-up.
D. provide manual in-line stabilization for the patient.


__________ 3. Which article of protective equipment provides an acceptable level of head protection?
A. bump cap C. uniform cap
B. firefighter’s helmet D. bicyclist’s helmet


__________ 4. The role of the EMT in vehicle stabilization and patient extrication is that of
A. a public information officer. C. a rescuer.
B. traffic control. D. patient care provider.


__________ 5. The safest shoes to wear when involved in the patient extrication process of a vehicle collision are
A. rubber boots. C. deck shoes.
B. high-top cross-training shoes. D. steel-toed boots.


__________ 6. In general, approach a vehicle that has been involved in a collision and contains a patient from the
A. front. C. passenger side.
B. driver’s side. D. rear.


__________ 7. Traffic at the scene of a motor-vehicle collision should be routed away a minimum distance of _____ feet.
A. 50 C. 150
B. 100 D. 200


__________ 8. Before entering a vehicle that was involved in a collision, it must be
A. removed. C. ticketed.
B. stabilized. D. marked.


__________ 9. The least costly method of forceful entry into a residence is
A. calling a locksmith. C. breaking a window.
B. using the jaws of life. D. breaking a door.


__________ 10. By far, the most common access problems encountered by the EMT involve
A. crime scenes. C. pets.
B. children. D. motor-vehicle collisions.


__________ 11. The easiest method of properly stabilizing a vehicle that is upright and on its wheels is to
A. use parallel step chocks.
B. use jacks at the front and rear bumpers.
C. place two wheel chocks.
D. put the car in park.


__________ 12. The most common tool used in vehicle extrication and patient disentanglement is the
A. airbag. C. power hydraulic rescue tool.
B. come-along. D. axe.


__________ 13. Complex access requires the use of
A. specialized tools. C. no special tools or equipment.
B. protective equipment. D. heavy gloves.


__________ 14. All windows in modern automobiles are made of tempered safety glass that will break into rounded pieces rather than sharp shards except the
A. windshield. C. driver’s window.
B. rear windows. D. sunroof.


__________ 15. Excluding motor-vehicle collisions, most injuries are the result of
A. hunting. C. electricity.
B. gravity. D. weather.

Ambulance Operations Quiz

Chapter 41 Quiz
Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.


__________ 1. The EMT’s first duty to the patient is to arrive at the scene
A. quickly. C. safely.
B. by the most direct route. D. with red lights, horn, and siren.


__________ 2. The EMT should not exceed the posted speed limit unless
A. traffic is light. C. the situation is critical.
B. traveling on holidays. D. using a police escort.


__________ 3. Using a police or other emergency vehicle escort en route to the collision or the hospital should be
A. a last resort. C. used with all critical patients.
B. standard procedure. D. only used at night.


__________ 4. The standard color for ambulances is
A. orange. C. yellow.
B. red. D. white.


__________ 5. The most common collisions in which ambulances are involved are those at
A. intersections. C. interstate off-ramps.
B. railroad crossings. D. pedestrian crosswalks.


__________ 6. Most states allow an emergency vehicle operator to do all of the following except
A. pass a school bus whose lights are flashing.
B. pass other vehicles in a no-passing zone.
C. proceed past red lights.
D. exceed the speed limits.


__________ 7. A reason for using the siren sparingly is that it signals “emergency,” and it can create emotional and physical stress for
A. bystanders. C. the patient.
B. EMTs. D. dispatchers.


__________ 8. The daily inspection of the ambulance should include all of the following except
A. checking emergency lights. C. inspecting tie rods.
B. checking power systems. D. testing the horn.


__________ 9. En route to an emergency call, EMTs should do all of the following except
A. think about what equipment will be carried to the scene.
B. determine crew responsibilities.
C. call for ALS support.
D. decontaminate essential equipment.


__________ 10. A common danger when an ambulance follows an escort vehicle is
A. losing contact with the escort.
B. creating additional stress for the patient.
C. confusion for the emergency dispatchers.
D. following the escort too closely.


__________ 11. The minimum distance an ambulance should be parked from wreckage or a burning vehicle is _____ feet.
A. 100 C. 300
B. 200 D. 400


__________ 12. At the receiving facility, the complete oral report to appropriate emergency department personnel should include all of the following except
A. the patient’s chief complaint. C. diagnosis of patient’s illness.
B. any history not given previously. D. vital signs taken en route.


__________ 13. Once a helicopter has set down and the pilot has indicated it is safe, you should approach a helicopter that has landed on an incline from the
A. front. C. rear.
B. uphill side. D. downhill side.


__________ 14. If tires are worn, hydroplaning on a wet road can begin at speeds as low as _____ mph.
A. 30 C. 20
B. 15 D. 35


__________ 15. The level of disinfection required for reusable instruments that have come into contact with mucous membranes is
A. low level. C. high level.
B. intermediate level. D. sterilization.


__________ 16. When the ambulance is ready to return to quarters, one of the first steps should be to
A. inform the dispatcher. C. refuel the vehicle.
B. complete the log entry. D. check the lights and siren.


__________ 17. When cleaning ambulance surfaces where there is no visible blood or body fluid contamination, the EMT should use
A. a high-pressure hose. C. soap and water.
B. an infrared lamp. D. an EPA-approved germicide.


__________ 18. Equipment that will be used invasively should be treated with
A. a 1:100 bleach-to-water mixture.
B. sterilization techniques.
C. Lysol.
D. a 1:10 bleach-to-water mixture.


__________ 19. An operational reason to request air rescue is
A. a Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 13.
B. prolonged extrication.
C. head injury with altered mental status.
D. penetrating injury to the body cavity.


__________ 20. If you have to set up a helicopter landing zone at night, its minimum size should be _____ feet.
A. 50 ¥ 50 C. 100 ¥ 100
B. 75 ¥ 75 D. 200 ¥ 200